Chandu Biology Class offers LIVE interactive Online classes for IIT JAM Students. Our online course has been designed to cover IIT JAM Syllabus including in-depth analysis of NET, DBT, ICMR and GATE Previous Question Papers. This programme is supplemented with comprehensive study material and Online Test Series. This programme offers you the right mix of classes, problem-solving skills and doubt clearing sessions. This helps you to develop a comprehensive understanding of concepts and their applications.

The IIT JAM syllabus has been revealed, and it’s time to prepare to ace the exam! Whether you’re gearing up for the IIT JAM 2024 or looking ahead to IIT JAM 2025, understanding the syllabus is crucial for your success. In this video, we’ll break down the IIT JAM 2024 syllabus, provide key study tips, and share insights on the IIT JAM 2024 exam date and result date. We’ll also review the IIT JAM 2023 question paper and discuss the cut-off trends from previous years, including IIT JAM 2022 and 2023. Stay tuned for a detailed guide to help you excel in your IIT JAM preparation. Don’t forget to check out our analysis of the IIT JAM 2024 answer key and how to interpret your results. With our comprehensive breakdown, you’ll be well-prepared to tackle the IIT JAM and achieve your academic goals. Subscribe for more updates and study tips!

INTRODUCTION

Before filling out the IIT JAM 2025 application form, aspirants must ensure that they fullfil the IIT JAM 2024 eligibility criteria. To fullfil the IIT JAM 2025 eligibility criteria, candidates should hold a bachelor’s degree. Candidates who have appeared or will appear for their graduation exams in 2025 are also eligible to apply, provided they submit the proof by September 2025, tentatively. For the admission process, candidates who would pass the IIT JAM 2024 exam will be eligible to apply for the admission process. Till the year 2021, the eligibility criteria for IIT JAM stated that candidates should secure a minimum 55 percent aggregate or 5.5 CGPA/CPI out of 10 for General/OBC (NCL)/EWS category candidates and 50 percent aggregate or 5.0 CGPA/CPI for the reserved category candidates. However, from 2022 onwards, this criterion was relaxed. Now, applicants will have to get a bachelor’s degree in a relevant subject, and no eligibility cutoff is there. Let us take a look at the other factors below. Besides the proof f or JAM 2025 minimum educational qualification, candidates also need to submit a physical fitness certificate at the time of admission. Candidates f ound unfit to pursue his/her Science course can be denied admission by the admitting institute. Candidates are advised to check the JAM 2025 subject-specific eligibility criteria meticulously.

ADMISSION PROGRAMMES

JAM 2025 admission process is long and extensive and consists of many events like registration, application fee, application correction window, admit card, exam day, answer key, answer key challenge, result, counselling, and seat allocation process. Candidates can find the detailed JAM 2025 events from here: IIT JAM 2025 Registration The JAM 2025 Application form is expected to start in the first week of September 2024. The JAM application form 2025 will be available in an online mode on the official website of the exam. Candidates need to first register by providing their personal and educational details. After receiving the registration credentials via email and SMS, they have to log in again and fill up the application form with the rest of the personal, and academic details, exam city preference, course preference, and document upload. After all details on the application form are filled in, candidates need to pay the application fee. Candidates could make the payment of the application fee online (through credit/ debit card/net banking) mode. After the form is submitted, a new window will open that will display the name and enrollment ID of the candidate. The window will also display the amount to be paid by the candidate as the application fee. After checking these details, candidates need to click on the ‘Proceed to Payment’ button.

TEST PAPERS & PATTERN OF TEST PAPERS
JAM 2025 Examination will be conducted in SEVEN subjects, also referred to as Test Papers; Biotechnology, Chemistry, Economics, Geology, Mathematics, Mathematical Statistics, and Physics. The medium for all the Test Papers is English only. JAM 2025 Examination for all the Test Papers will be conducted as a Computer Based Test (CBT) where the candidates will be shown the questions in a random sequence on a computer screen.

The duration of the examination will be of THREE hours. Eligible PwD candidates may be given one- hour compensatory time and the assistance of scribe for the examination as per the guidelines of Government of India (Refer Section 9). There will be a total of 60 questions carrying a total of 100 marks. The entire paper will be divided into three sections, A, B and C. All sections are compulsory. Questions in each section will be of different types as given below:

Section – A contains a total of 30 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) involving 10 questions of one mark each and 20 questions of two marks each. Each MCQ has four choices out of which only one choice is the correct answer. Candidates can mark their answer by clicking one of the choices. A wrong answer will result in negative marks. For each wrong answer to 1 mark questions, 1/3 mark will be deducted and similarly for each wrong answer to 2 marks questions, 2/3 mark will be deducted.

Section – B contains a total of 10 Multiple Select Questions (MSQs) carrying two marks each. Each MSQ is similar to MCQ but with the difference that MSQ may have one or more than one correct choice(s) out of the four given choices. The candidate is awarded full credit only if all the correct answer(s) and no wrong answers are selected. Candidates can mark the answer(s) by clicking the choice(s). There is no negative marking or partial marking for MSQ.

Section – C contains a total of 20 Numerical Answer Type (NAT) questions involving 10 questions of one mark each and 10 questions of two marks each. For NAT questions, the answer is a signed real number, which needs to be entered using the virtual numeric keypad displayed on the monitor. No choices will be shown for NAT questions. There is no negative marking for NAT.

(1) In all sections, questions not attempted will result in zero mark. There is no provision for partial marking.
(2) The candidates are required to select the answer(s) for MCQ and MSQ type questions using the mouse.
(3) The answer for NAT questions must be entered using a virtual numeric keypad. The keyboard of the computer will be disabled.
(4)There is a provision for using online virtual calculator. Candidates are not allowed to bring their own calculators.
(5) A scribble pad will be provided for rough work. Candidates have to write their name and registration number before using it. The scribble pad has to be returned at the end of the examination.
(6) The examination will end automatically after the stipulated time.
(7) Candidates are required to adhere to the code of conduct specified in Annexure V.
(8) Candidates will also be able to take a mock examination through a ‘Mock Test’ link that will be made available on the JAM 2025 website. Question Papers of last three years are also available on JAM 2025 website.

EXAM INFORMATION 

APPLICATION PROCEDURE
JAM 2025 admission process is long and extensive and consists of many events like
registration, application f ee, application correction window, admit card, exam day, answer
key, answer key challenge, result, counselling, and seat allocation process. Candidates can
f ind the detailed JAM 2025 events from here:

JOAPS provides an online interface to the candidate for interacting with the JAM 2023 Administration. With this interface, a candidate can:
(1) Apply for the examination online.
(2) Upload photograph, signature, and other documents like certificate (for SC / ST / PwD)
(3) Pay the application fee through any of the electronic payment modes.
(4) Check the status of the application form such as Received, Under scrutiny, Accepted, Defect status, Status after rectification, Rejected with valid reasons, and Admit card ready for download.

Note:
(i) Candidates are strongly advised to fill the application form on their own. If someone else is filling the application on behalf of the candidate, the candidate must ensure that the data submitted are correct.
(ii) Candidates must give an e-mail address that they use frequently, as all communication to the candidate for JAM 2023 will be sent to this e-mail address.
(iii) The candidate must not use somebody else’s e-mail address and only one candidate can be registered with one e-mail address.
(iv) Similarly, candidates should provide their personal mobile number and are advised to use the same number until the results are declared because most of the communication may also be sent via SMS. A candidate should submit only one application form even if the candidate wants to appear for two Test Papers. Multiple applications submitted by a candidate are liable for rejection. Hence,
DO NOT submit multiple application forms.

Choice of Examination Cities: JAM 2023 Examination will be conducted in eight zones. The names of these eight zones with the list of zone-wise Examination Cities are listed in Annexure VI. Candidates must specify their first, second and third choice of cities at the time of applying for JAM 2023. When the choice of first city is made, then the zone gets determined and the candidates will be able to choose the second and third choice city only from the same zone. If a minimum required number of candidates have not applied at a listed city, then the city may be dropped from the final list, and those candidates will be allotted a centre in the city of their second or
third choice. However, a new city may be added, or an existing city may be removed, or a city that may not be any one of the choices stated by the candidate may be allotted for operational reasons. Candidates are requested to regularly check JAM 2023 website for updates regarding examination cities, if any. A city once allotted will not normally be changed. An examination city may have one or more examination centres. A request for change of centre within the same city will NOT be accepted.

Data Requirement for Filling the Application Form: The following data will be required while filling the form at JOAPS portal:
(1) Personal information (name, date of birth, personal mobile number, parent’s/guardian’s name, parent’s/ guardian’s mobile number, etc.)
(2) Name of the candidate in the application form must exactly be the same as per the qualifying degree certificate. JAM 2023 Scorecard will be issued as per the name entered in the application form. Prefix/title such as Mr/Shri/Dr/Ms/Mrs/Smt, etc. should NOT be used.
(3) Address for communication including PIN code
(4) Details of Eligibility degree
(5) Name and address with PIN code of the College/Institute/University
(6) Choice of JAM paper(s)
(7) Choice of JAM Examination Cities
(8) High-quality image of the candidate’s photograph and signature conforming to the specifications given in Section 6.3 and Section 6.4, respectively
(9) Scanned copy of the Category (SC/ST) Certificate (if applicable) as per guidelines given in Section 6.5
(10) Scanned copy of Physical Disability Certificate (if applicable) or Unique Disability Identification (UDID) certificate
(11) Details of the Photo Identity Document (ID). This ID, in original, should be carried by the candidate to the examination center. Candidate can specify any one of the following Photo ID: Aadhaar ID, Driving License, PAN Card, Passport, or Voter ID
(12) Net-banking / debit card / credit card / UPI details for fee payment JOAPS allows the candidate to enter the data, save a partially filled form, logout and resume filling by logging in again. The JOAPS portal is self-explanatory and user-friendly. The application fee will be automatically determined based on the category, gender, and number of Test Papers that have been opted by the candidate.

Application Fee Payment Procedure
The application fee as shown in Table 1 is to be paid online only. Candidates will be able to make the payment using net-banking, debit or credit card or UPI until October 11, 2022. Before proceeding for making any payment, applicants should view their application by clicking the “Save and View” button. They should carefully check the application and ensure that there are no errors in the
application form. They should also ensure that all the relevant and valid documents are uploaded. If there is any mistake, they can edit the relevant fields before proceeding for the payment. After this they should click on “Proceed for Payment” button. Once a candidate clicks “Proceed for Payment” button, NO FURTHER CHANGES in the application form can be made and the candidate will be
directed to the payment portal. On the fee payment portal, the fee amount and bank charges will be shown and the candidate has to confirm that the payment is for JAM 2023. Once confirmed and payment is successful, the candidate will be redirected back to the JOAPS Website, where it shows confirmation of the fee payment. If the candidate had selected only ONE Test Paper, there will be an
option to choose a second Test Paper. If candidates desire to do so, they can proceed by paying the additional amount for second Test Paper as indicated in Table 1.

If candidates have difficulty in making the fee payment (due to internet connection or power failure, for example) or are not sure whether payment has been processed or not, then they should login to JOAPS after about an hour and check the status of the payment. A new online payment should be initiated if the payment of fee is not reflected in the JOAPS portal. If it is not done, the
application will be rejected due to non-payment of the application fee in time. In case, the fee amount has been debited from the account of candidate, but JOAPS does not acknowledge any fee payment, then the money will be credited back to the account within ten working days.

In exceptional circumstances, a change of examination city may be permitted. The request for city change should be made after an online payment of ₹ 500 through JOAPS on or before November 12, 2022. Please note that payment of ₹ 500 does not necessarily guarantee the change of the city. The decision of the Organizing Institute, JAM 2023, in this regard will be final.

In case of any queries/problems in filling application form and making the fee payment online, contact the Organizing Institute with the details provided on the website.

Application Scrutiny and Rectification
Applications shall be scrutinized to verify the data entered by the candidate with the submitted supporting documents, clarity of the photograph and signature. If everything is found to be in order, the application will be accepted. Otherwise, defects in the application will be marked and intimated to the candidate for rectification within a stipulated time. The status of the application and defects marked in the application will be intimated to the candidates through e-mail and/or SMS. The latest status of an application will be updated after the receipt and re-scrutiny of the application. The status of an application can be checked at any point of time by logging in JOAPS.

Candidates should rectify the marked defects in the application before the stipulated deadline. Failing to rectify the defects within the stipulated time can lead to the application being rejected and no further communication will be entertained in this regard.

Admit Card
An Admit Card, bearing the Candidate’s Name, Registration Number, Photograph, Signature and Name(s) and Code(s) of the Test Paper(s) applied, along with the Name and Address of the Test Centre allotted, will be available for download from JOAPS from January 10, 2023 until the Examination Date. Admit Cards will not be sent by post/e-mail. The candidate should carefully examine the Admit Card for all the entries made therein. In case of any discrepancy, the candidate should inform through email to jam2023@iitg.ac.in.

A printout of the downloaded Admit Card must be brought to the Test Centre along with the original and valid Photo ID. The candidate has to give the details of this ID proof while filling the online application. No candidate will be permitted to appear in JAM 2023 examination without a valid Admit Card, and a valid and original Photo ID. The Admit Card should be presented for verification.

A copy of the Admit Card of JAM 2023 must be carefully preserved by the Candidate and produced at the time of Admission, if required by the Admitting Institute.

The Organizing Institute may withdraw the permission granted to a candidate to appear in JAM 2023, if it is found later on that the candidate is not eligible to appear in the exam, even though an Admit Card has been issued.

JAM 2023 Scorecard and Merit Lists
The results will be declared on March 22, 2023 on the JAM 2023 website. For each Test Paper, an All India Rank (AIR) will be assigned to all candidates based on their performance.
Tie-Breaking: The tie-breaking criterion for awarding the ranks to candidates scoring the same aggregate marks in a Test Paper will be as follows:

Scores in the NAT section followed by the scores in the MSQ section will be used to break the tie. Candidates with higher score will be given better rank. Final tie-breaker will be the date of birth of the candidates. The older candidate gets a higher preference. If this criterion fails to break ties, the concerned candidates will be awarded the same rank.

For each Test Paper, an All India Merit list will be prepared based on AIR. The number of candidates included in the All India Merit List will depend on the total number of seats available in each category (GEN, OBC-NCL, EWS, SC, ST, and PwD) in a given subject. These candidates (henceforth called Qualified Candidates) are eligible to apply for admission to any of the corresponding academic programmes. The JAM 2023 Scorecard (indicating the AIR(s) and the mark(s) obtained by the candidate) will be available for download from the JAM 2023 website from April 01, 2023 to July 31, 2023 for qualified candidates.

ADMISSION PROCEDURE
A brief summary of the admission procedure is provided in this section and detailed information including timelines will be given in the Admission Brochure to be published in the second week of March 2023.

Academic Programmes: The list of academic programmes available at the 21 admitting IITs as part of JAM 2023 is given in Annexure II. A qualified candidate can apply to admissions for all eligible programmes with a single application. Candidates who have qualified in multiple Test Papers also need to apply with a single application.

Eligibility Requirements (ERs) & Minimum Educational Qualifications (MEQs): Candidates
who have successfully completed an undergraduate degree or currently studying in the final year of undergraduate are eligible for admission through JAM 2023. Proof of having passed the Qualifying Degree with the Minimum Educational Qualifications (MEQs) as specified by the Admitting Institute in Annexure III should be submitted by September 1, 2023. At the time of admission, all admitted candidates may have to submit a Physical Fitness certificate from a registered medical practitioner in the prescribed form to the Admitting Institute. At the time of admission, the admitted candidates may also have to undergo a Physical Fitness test by a medical board constituted by the Admitting Institute. In case candidates are not found physically fit to pursue their chosen programme of study, their admission is liable to be cancelled.

Application for Admission: Subsequent to the announcement of JAM 2023 results, a qualified candidate satisfying the ERs and MEQs seeking admission has to apply online through the JAM 2023 website, irrespective of the 21 IITs where the admission is sought. The candidate needs to provide the required information, such as choice of the programmes in order of preference, educational qualifications, percentage of marks/CGPA, category, PwD status, etc. A payment of ₹ 750 (Rupees Seven hundred and fifty only) is to be made online as non-refundable processing fee. Foreign nationals with Indian degree are eligible to apply, subject to the policy of the Admitting Institute.

Reservations: In each programme, a certain number of seats as detailed in Annexure II are reserved/allocated for candidates belonging to various categories. Candidates who seek admission under SC or ST category must submit the requisite certificate issued by a competent authority as specified in Annexure VII. Candidates who seek admission under the OBC-NCL or EWS Category must submit an OBC-NCL or EWS Certificate issued by a competent authority as specified in Annexure VI, in the format shown in Annexure VIII for OBC-NCL and Annexure IX for EWS. Certificates for OBC-NCL or EWS should have been issued after March 31, 2022. Candidates who seek admission under PwD category must submit a disability certificate (refer Annexure VI) or Unique Disability Identification (UDID) certificate.

Provisional Admission: A maximum of four rounds of admission will be made to fill the available seats. Candidates who are offered a seat can either (i) accept the offered seat as final with no changes in the subsequent round, or (ii) accept the offered seat in this round with an option to be considered for being upgraded to other programmes, only for which they have given better preferences, in subsequent round(s), if any, or (iii) reject the offer and quit the admission process.

Admission Fee: After the declaration of the Admission List in each round, intimation will be sent by the Organizing Institute to the candidates concerned. Along with the submission of acceptance form, these candidates will also have to pay an advance seat booking fee (₹ 10000 for General/OBC-NCL/EWS category candidates and ₹ 5000 for SC / ST / PwD category candidates) online through JOAPS, within the deadline mentioned in the offer letter. This amount will be transferred to the Admitting Institute and it will be adjusted against the Institute Fee at the time of Registration. Admission can be denied if a candidate does not upload valid requisite documents or does not pay fee in the stipulated time.

BIOTECHNOLOGY (BT)
The Biotechnology (BT) Test Paper comprises Biology, Chemistry, Mathematics and Physics.

BIOLOGY (10+2+3 level)

Cell Biology: Structure of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells; Membrane structure and function; Organelles and internal organization of the eukaryotic cell Protein trafficking in a eukaryotic cell; Cell communication – signaling pathways: endocrine and paracrine signaling; Extracellular matrix and apoptosis; Cell cycle – stages of mitosis and meiosis, and control of cell division cycle.

Biochemistry: Structure and function of biological macromolecules; Allostery; Enzymes – basic mechanisms of enzyme catalysis, Michaelis-Menten kinetics, enzyme inhibition, vitamins as coenzymes, and regulation; Bioenergetics – free-energy change, high-energy compounds, biological oxidation-reduction reactions and reduction potential; Metabolism – glycolysis, TCA cycle, oxidative phosphorylation, photosynthesis, nitrogen
fixation, urea cycle, and regulation of glycolysis and TCA cycle.

Genetics: Mendel’s laws; Inheritance patterns of polygenic traits; Mendelian inheritance patterns of human disorders; Pedigree analysis; Chromosomal basis of inheritance; Genetic recombination; Mapping genes on chromosomes based on linkage analysis; Plant breeding.

Molecular Biology: Landmark experiments that established DNA is the genetic material; DNA replication; Proof-reading and repair of DNA; DNA recombination; Transcription; RNA processing; Translation; Regulation of gene expression including operons bacteria and differential gene expression in multicellular eukaryotes.

Evolution: Darwinian view – natural selection, fossil record and descent with modification; Population genetics – sources of genetic variation, gene pools and allele frequencies, Hardy-Weinberg equation, genetic drift, gene flow and adaptive evolution; Different types of speciation; Phylogenetic classification; Origin of life – abiotic synthesis of biological macromolecules, protocell, dating fossils and origin of multicellularity.

Microbiology: Isolation; Cultivation; Structural features of viruses, bacteria, fungi and protozoa; Pathogenic microorganisms; Nutrition-based classification of microbes; Microbial metabolism; Growth kinetics; Submerged fermentation techniques; Microbial genetics.

Plant Biology: Types of tissues and organs; Primary and secondary growth; Morphogenesis; Transport in vascular plants; Plant nutrition; Development of flowering plants – gametophytic and sporophytic generations, different developmental phases, genetic control of flowering, gametogenesis, incompatibility, embryogenesis, dormancy, germination and environmental influence; Plant hormones; Photobiology; Plant response to biotic
and abiotic stresses

Animal Biology: Digestive, circulatory, respiratory, excretory, nervous, reproductive and endocrine systems; Basics of immunology – Innate and adaptive immunity, Immune cells and Immunoglobulins; Animal development – Fertilization, embryonic pattern formation, cleavage, gastrulation, cellular differentiation and morphogenesis.

Ecology: Climate patterns; Terrestrial and aquatic biomes; Environmental constraints on species distribution; Factors affecting population density; Interactions among communities; Ecosystems; Ecological remediation.

Biotechnology: Plant tissue culture; Cloning of animals through somatic cell nuclear transfer; Applications of recombinant DNA technology in medicine, agriculture and forensic science.

Methods in Biology: Cell Biology: Microscopy (light microscopy and electron microscopy); Staining proteins with antibodies;
Visualizations using the GFP reporter. Biochemical techniques: UV spectrophotometry; Biomolecular chromatography; cell fractionation by centrifugation; Electrophoresis; and Western blotting. Molecular biology techniques: DNA cloning – plasmid vectors, and restriction enzymes; Polymerase Chain Reaction; Expression of cloned eukaryotic genes in bacteria; Hybridization techniques; DNA sequencing.

CHEMISTRY (10+2+3 level)

Structure and properties of Atoms: Bohr’s theory; Periodicity in properties.

Bonding in molecules: Chemical bonding; Complex formation; Physical and chemical basis of molecular interactions.

Chemical kinetics, thermodynamics, and equilibrium: Chemical equilibrium; Chemical thermodynamics (first and second law); and Chemical kinetics (zero and first order reactions).

Physical and chemical properties of compounds: Chemical catalysis; Acid-base concepts; Concepts of pH and buffer; Conjugative effects and resonance; Inductive effects; Electromeric effects; Photochemistry;
and Electrochemistry.

Chemistry of organic compounds: Hydrocarbons; Alkyl halides; Alcohols; Aldehydes; Ketones; Carboxylic acids; Amines and their derivatives; Aromatic hydrocarbons, halides, nitro and amino compounds, phenols, diazonium salts, carboxylic and sulphonic acids; Soaps and detergents;
Stereochemistry of carbon compounds.

Instrumental techniques – Spectroscopy: fundamentals of molecular spectroscopy, emission and absorption spectroscopy, UV-Vis, IR and 1-D proton NMR spectroscopy, basics of mass spectrometry;
Basics of calorimetry; Basic concepts of crystallography.

MATHEMATICS (10+2 level)

Sets; Relations and Functions; Mathematical Induction; Logarithms; Complex numbers; Linear and Quadratic equations; Sequences and Series; Trigonometry; Cartesian System of Rectangular Coordinates; Straight lines and Family; Three Dimensional Geometry; Permutations and Combinations; Binomial Theorem; Vectors; Matrices and Determinants; Boolean Algebra; Functions; Limits and Continuity;
Differentiation; Ordinary Differential Equations; Application of Derivatives; Integration as inverse process of differentiation; Definite and indefinite integrals; Methods of Integration; Integration by parts.

Statistics: Measures of dispersion; Mean Deviation for grouped and ungrouped data; Variance and Standard Deviation; and Analysis of Frequency Distribution.

Probability: Random Experiments; Event; Axiomatic Approach to Probability; Conditional Probability and its properties; Multiplication Theorem on Probability; Independent Events; Bayes’ Theorem; Random Variables and its Probability Distributions; Bernoulli Trails and Binomial Distributions.

PHYSICS (10+2 level)

Units and measurements; Motion in one and two dimensions; Laws of motion; Work and kinetic energy; Conservation of energy; System of particles and rotational motion; Mechanical properties of solids and fluids; Thermal properties of matter; Heat and laws of thermodynamics; Kinetic theory of gases; Electric charge and field; Electric potential and capacitance; Current, resistance and simple circuits; Moving charges and magnetic field; Magnetism and matter; Electromagnetic induction; Electromagnetic waves; Alternating currents; Optics: Geometrical Optics – Reflection by spherical mirrors, Refraction at spherical surfaces and lenses, Total internal reflection and Optical instruments; Wave optics – Reflection and refraction of plane
waves, Interference, Diffraction, Polarization, and Young’s experiment: Dual nature of radiation and matter; Atoms, nuclei and nuclear physics; Semiconductor materials, devices and simple circuits.